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Exam Code: EVP-100
Exam Name: EMC (2011 VSE Consolidate Product & Technology Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three (3) are considered software features of the VNXe?
A. integrated Data Protection
B. FibreChannel Connectivity
C. Active/active ease of use
D. Simplified Management
E. Unified IP based protocols
F. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 What feature of the VNX allows the array to move more active data to faster drives and less active
data to
slower drives?
A. FASTVP
B. FAST Cashe
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two (2) new drive types were introduced with the VNX array family?
A. Enterprise Flash Drives
B. SAS
C. Fibre Channel
D. SATA Flash Drives
E. NL SAS
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Zoning with World Wide Names is often referred to as what?
A. Host Zoning
B. Hard Zoning
C. WWNN Zoning
D. Soft Zoning
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two (2) are key benefits of the VNX File Reduplication?
A. Reduced power costs
B. Improved application performance
C. Improved reliability of applications
D. Reduced reliance on short-term tape retention
E. Improved LAN and WAN performance
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Which three (3) protocols will the VNXe array work with?
A. iSCSI (file emulated)
B. Fibre Channel
C. FTP/SFTP
D. CIFS
E. iSCSI (native block)
F. NFS
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.7 What feature of the VNX allows the array to identify bottlenecks and hot-spots in the VNX storage
systems?
A. Data Compression
B. Unisphere Analyzer
C. FASTVP
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which (3) are considered software features of VNX.?
A. Unified IP based protocols
B. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
C. FibreChannel Connectivity
D. Simplified Management
E. Integrated Data Protection
F. Active/active ease of use
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.9 What type of drive is best suited for environments where high IOPS is required?
A. SAS
B. Flash Drives
C. Fibre Channel
D. NL SAS
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the term used to describe the total amount of Thin LUN user capacity that is configured in the
Pool and
is presented to the attached hosts?
A. Over Subscribed Capacity
B. Host Capacity
C. Subscribed Capacity
D. User Capacity
Answer: C

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NO.11 What feature of the VNX allows the array to free up space by eliminating redundant data?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. FASTVP
C. Data Compression
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: C

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NO.12 What feature of the VNX measures, monitors and controls application performance on the storage
system?
A. FASTVP
B. Unisphere Quality of Service Manager
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: B

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NO.13 When comparing the different software suites for the VNXe, which one of the software suites provides
for file and block snapshots?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Application Protection Suite
C. Security and Compliance Suite
D. Local Protection Suite
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which suite of software is the Unisphere Analyzer part of?
A. VNX Local Protection Suite
B. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which VNX Array is Block Based only?
A. VNX5100
B. VNX5500
C. VNX5300
D. VNX5700
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two (2) VNX Arrays will the Velocity partners focus their efforts on selling?
A. VNX5700
B. VNX5300
C. VNX5500
D. VNX7500
E. VNX5100
Answer: B,E

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NO.17 When comparing the different software suites for the VNX, which one provides for automated,
application aware replication, monitoring, notification, and reporting via Replication Manager and Data
Protection Advisor for Replication Analysis?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Security and Compliance Suite
C. Local Protection Suite
D. Application Protection Suite
Answer: D

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NO.18 The VNX Total Protection Pack consists of which of the software suites?
A. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
B. VNX Local Protection Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
E. VNX Application Protection Suite
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.19 What feature of the VNX allows the array to avoid cache misses and improves response time by
promoting data from Hard Disk Drives to Flash Drives?
A. FASTVP
B. Data Compression
C. Fash Cashe
D. Unisphere Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which compression state is being utilized when data compression is first enabled while background
setup
operations are performed by system?
A. Compressing
B. Compressed
C. Queued
D. Initializing
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-002
Exam Name: EMC (Cloud Infrastructure and Services Exam)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?
A. RAID 1 and Nested
B. RAID 0 and RAID 6
C. RAID 3 and RAID 5
D. RAID 5 and Nested
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?
A. Volume Manager
B. Operating System
C. DBMS
D. Application
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?
A. Data corruption
B. Data backup
C. Data loss
D. Data security
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is used to logically group FC ports?
A. Zone
B. VLAN
C. Mask
D. ISL
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?
A. Area ID
B. Port ID
C. Domain ID
D. WWN
Answer: C

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NO.6 In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in
proportion to capital expenditures?
A. On-premise Private Cloud
B. External Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy.?
A. Software-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
D. Virtualization-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.10 As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the
organization would be expected to grow larger?
A. Power and energy
B. Management
C. Infrastructure
D. Operational
Answer: D

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NO.11 What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
B. Services are provisioned based on their demand.
C. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.
D. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which is a benefit of server clustering?
A. High CPU utilization
B. High availability
C. High memory utilization
D. High security
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.14 An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance
has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their
problem.
Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?
A. Front-end
B. Cache
C. LUN
D. Back-end
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-326
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Design Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer will migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and Windows hosts from a DMX-3 to a new VMAX array.
You need performance data from the existing array to design to the new VMAX volumes configuration
layout. Which tools can be used to collect Symmetrix array performance data?
A. ControlCenter Performance Manager and STP Collector
B. EMC Workload Generator and STP Navigator
C. Storage Configuration Advisor and STP Collector
D. ControlCenter Performance Manager and SymmMerge
Answer: A

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NO.4 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the AIX Servers, to
list the software modules installed?
A. pkginfo
B. lslpp
C. swlist
D. cfgmgr
Answer: B

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NO.5 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a two hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every two hours
B. SUM report over two hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and IBM iSeries hosts to a new VMAX array.
Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout.
What host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. IOSTAT, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. STP, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
C. IOSTAT, STP, WRKDSKSTS
D. Perfmon, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX and Windows hosts as well as Mainframe z/OS LPARs to a
new VMAX array. Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout. Which
host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. STP, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. SAR, Perfmon, WRKDSKSTS
C. IOSTAT, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
D. IOSTAT, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: C

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NO.10 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.11 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a
Windows host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are proposing a new VMAX array with FAST VP. The customer reports their application needs a
small amount of EFD capacity and asks whether 200 GB EFDs or 400 GB EFDs would provide better
overall performance. Which drive size do you recommend and why?
A. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 200 GB EFDs.
B. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 400 GB EFDs.
C. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 200 GB EFDs.
D. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 400 GB EFDs.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a four hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every four hours
B. SUM report over four hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.14 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a flexible partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
B. Cache will be borrowed from the other flexible partition
C. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports the maximum allowable downtime for their applications is ninety minutes,
but they have not yet determined how much data recovery following a disaster their environment can
tolerate.
The customer asks which remote replication method you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend.?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a best practice when configuring a Symmetrix VMAX for optimal performance and cost?
A. Different drive types are mixed and spread throughout the array.
B. Dedicated engines have appropriate drive types to meet application needs.
C. A dedicated array with Enterprise Flash Drives (EFD).
D. A dedicated array based upon application requirement.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a static partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Cache will be borrowed from a flexible partition
B. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
C. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: C

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NO.20 A customer is interested in utilizing TimeFinder/Snap to generate a backup copy of an application
every six hours. In order for you to calculate the SAVE Pool requirements you will need to run Change
Tracker. To which value should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 10800
C. 86400
D. 32400
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 312-50
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical Hacker Certified)
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Total Q&A: 765 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 To what does "message repudiation" refer to what concept in the realm of email
security?
A. Message repudiation means a user can validate which mail server or servers a message
was passed through.
B. Message repudiation means a user can claim damages for a mail message that
damaged their reputation.
C. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
particular person.
D. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
certain host.
E. Message repudiation means a sender can claim they did not actually send a particular
message.
Answer: E

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NO.2 A Certkiller security System Administrator is reviewing the network system log files.
He notes the following:
- Network log files are at 5 MB at 12:00 noon.
-At 14:00 hours, the log files at 3 MB.
What should he assume has happened and what should he do about the situation?
A. He should contact the attacker's ISP as soon as possible and have the connection
disconnected.
B. He should log the event as suspicious activity, continue to investigate, and take further
steps according to site security policy.
C. He should log the file size, and archive the information, because the router crashed.
D. He should run a file system check, because the Syslog server has a self correcting file
system problem.
E. He should disconnect from the Internet discontinue any further unauthorized use,
because an attack has taken place.
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to the CEH methodology, what is the next step to be performed after
footprinting?
A. Enumeration
B. Scanning
C. System Hacking
D. Social Engineering
E. Expanding Influence
Answer: B

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NO.4 A very useful resource for passively gathering information about a target company
is:
A. Host scanning
B. Whois search
C. Traceroute
D. Ping sweep
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect
Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following tools are used for footprinting?(Choose four.
A. Sam Spade
B. NSLookup
C. Traceroute
D. Neotrace
E. Cheops
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.7 You are footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. You visit
the company's website for contact information and telephone numbers but do not
find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their
website 12 months ago but not it is not there.
How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is
outdated?
A. Visit google's search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive of the company's website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two.
A. DoS
B. Passive
C. Sniffing
D. Active
E. Cracking
Answer: B, D

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NO.9 User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving
e-mail scams and mail fraud?
A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices
B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers
C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television
D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property
E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems
F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act
G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an
attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply)
A. CHAT rooms
B. WHOIS database
C. News groups
D. Web sites
E. Search engines
F. Organization's own web site
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F

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NO.11 How does Traceroute map the route that a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. It uses a TCP Timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceed in transit message.
B. It uses a protocol that will be rejected at the gateways on its way to its destination.
C. It manipulates the value of time to live (TTL) parameter packet to elicit a time
exceeded in transit message.
D. It manipulated flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Snort has been used to capture packets on the network. On studying the packets, the
penetration tester finds it to be abnormal. If you were the penetration tester, why
would you find this abnormal?
(Note: The student is being tested on concept learnt during passive OS
fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet
signatures from a sniff dumo.)
05/20-17:06:45.061034 192.160.13.4:31337 -> 172.16.1.101:1
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seq: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
...
05/20-17:06:58.685879 192.160.13.4:31337 ->
172.16.1.101:1024
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seg: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
What is odd about this attack? (Choose the most appropriate statement)
A. This is not a spoofed packet as the IP stack has increasing numbers for the three flags.
B. This is back orifice activity as the scan comes from port 31337.
C. The attacker wants to avoid creating a sub-carrier connection that is not normally
valid.
D. There packets were created by a tool; they were not created by a standard IP stack.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You receive an email with the following message:
Hello Steve,
We are having technical difficulty in restoring user database record after the recent
blackout. Your account data is corrupted. Please logon to the SuperEmailServices.com
and change your password.
http://www.supermailservices.com@0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef/support/logon.htm
If you do not reset your password within 7 days, your account will be permanently
disabled locking you out from our e-mail services.
Sincerely,
Technical Support
SuperEmailServices
From this e-mail you suspect that this message was sent by some hacker since you
have been using their e-mail services for the last 2 years and they have never sent
out an e-mail such as this. You also observe the URL in the message and confirm
your suspicion about 0xde.0xad.0xbde.0xef which looks like hexadecimal numbers.
You immediately enter the following at Windows 2000 command prompt:
Ping0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef
You get a response with a valid IP address.
What is the obstructed IP address in the e-mail URL?
A. 222.173.190.239
B. 233.34.45.64
C. 54.23.56.55
D. 199.223.23.45
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the
acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do
not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on
their website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you
to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is "Hacktivism"?
A. Hacking for a cause
B. Hacking ruthlessly
C. An association which groups activists
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting?
A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded.
B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets.
C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database.
D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Who is an Ethical Hacker?
A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons
B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause
C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes
D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'?
A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker.
B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker.
C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target.
D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your Certkiller trainee Sandra asks you which are the four existing Regional
Internet Registry (RIR's)?
A. APNIC, PICNIC, ARIN, LACNIC
B. RIPE NCC, LACNIC, ARIN, APNIC
C. RIPE NCC, NANIC, ARIN, APNIC
D. RIPE NCC, ARIN, APNIC, LATNIC
Answer: B

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NO.20 What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean?
A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons.
B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons.
C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes.
D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EC1-349
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following email headers specifies an address for mailer-generated errors, like "no
such user" bounce messages, to go to (instead of the sender's address)?
A. Errors-To header
B. Content-Transfer-Encoding header
C. Mime-Version header
D. Content-Type header
Answer: A

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NO.2 WPA2 provides enterprise and Wi-Fi users with stronger data protection and network access
control which of the following encryption algorithm is used DVWPA2?
A. RC4-CCMP
B. RC4-TKIP
C. AES-CCMP
D. AES-TKIP
Answer: C

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NO.3 Data acquisition system is a combination of tools or processes used to gather, analyze and
record
Information about some phenomenon. Different data acquisition system are used depends on the
location, speed, cost. etc. Serial communication data acquisition system is used when the actual
location of the data is at some distance from the computer. Which of the following communication
standard is used in serial communication data acquisition system?
A. RS422
B. RS423
C. RS232
D. RS231
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is not a part of the technical specification of the laboratory-based
imaging
system?
A. High performance workstation PC
B. Remote preview and imaging pod
C. Anti-repudiation techniques
D. very low image capture rate
Answer: D

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NO.5 Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X”
represents the _________.
A. Drive name
B. Sequential number
C. Original file name's extension
D. Original file name
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the seizure of digital evidence, the suspect can be allowed touch the computer
system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Email archiving is a systematic approach to save and protect the data contained in emails so
that
it can tie easily accessed at a later date.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.9 When dealing with the powered-off computers at the crime scene, if the computer is switched
off,
turn it on
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.10 Smith, as a part his forensic investigation assignment, has seized a mobile device. He was
asked
to recover the Subscriber Identity Module (SIM card) data the mobile device. Smith found that the
SIM was protected by a Personal identification Number (PIN) code but he was also aware that
people generally leave the PIN numbers to the defaults or use easily guessable numbers such as
1234. He unsuccessfully tried three PIN numbers that blocked the SIM card. What Jason can do in
this scenario to reset the PIN and access SIM data?
A. He should contact the device manufacturer for a Temporary Unlock Code (TUK) to gain access
to the SIM
B. He cannot access the SIM data in this scenario as the network operators or device
manufacturers have no idea about a device PIN
C. He should again attempt PIN guesses after a time of 24 hours
D. He should ask the network operator for Personal Unlock Number (PUK) to gain access to the
SIM
Answer: D

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NO.1 How many LUNs are required for the Write intent Log (WIL)?
A. one per array
B. two per array
C. one per each mirrored LUN
D. two per each mirrored LUN
Answer: B

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NO.2 In a Dell / EMC only Storage Area Network (SAN), SAN Copy requires which three of
the following? (Choose three)
A. Access Logix must be running on all participating storage arrays.
B. SnapView or MirrorView must be installed on the storage array running SAN Copy.
C. Either the Source or Destination logical units must reside on an array running SAN
copy
D. The Navishere Host Agent does not need to be installed on all hosts that own LUNs to
be SAN copied.
E. All SAN Copy ports must be zoned correctly, in order for SAN copy to have access to
these storage arrays.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.3 Which three statements about Navisphere Analyzer are correct? (choose three)
A. Navisphere Analyzer is included within Navisphere Manager
B. Navisphere Analyzer is optional software that can track performance trends on Dell /
EMC storage arrays.
C. Navisphere Analyzer allows you to automatically record, capture and display
performance data metrics.
D. Navisphere Analyzer can fine tune parameters of storage arrays, Identifying potential
bottlenecks, such as spindle count starvation within a RAID configuration and read/write
cache adjustments to increase performance.
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.4 Which LUN duplication method would have the least initial performance impact on a
source LUN To create and be the easiest and least costly to implement?
A. use SAN copy to copy the source LUN
B. mirror the source LUN to a second host
C. clone the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
Answer: D

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NO.5 SAN Copy can be configured to
A. have simultaneous sessions between multiple storage systems
B. provide synchronous mirroring between multiple storage systems
C. allows UNIX hosts to copy LUNs to be accessed by Windows hosts
D. create copies of Source LUNs that are only 20% of the original size
Answer: A

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Exam Code: TK0-201
Exam Name: CompTIA (CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer))
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Total Q&A: 247 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 An instructor is leading a virtual class when several learners start having significant bandwidth issues
that cause them to drop out of the live session. Which of the following represents the BEST solution to the
problem?
A. Inform the learners that most of the same material will be covered in the next class session.
B. Have the learners watch a recorded session of the class.
C. Request that those learners with bandwidth issues be moved to an in-person live class,
D. Cancel the current session and schedule a make-up class.
Answer: B

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NO.2 After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations
of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?
A. It measures the application of the skills taught.
B. It validates the quality of the course material.
C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.
Answer: A

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NO.3 During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the
instructor do FIRST?
A. Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B. Move the class to another room.
C. Take a class break and find another projector.
D. Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.
Answer: A

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NO.4 At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers
because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that
since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room.
If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job
requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective
brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y
computers present to the user.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware
material used during a class?
A. Design of the courseware materials
B. Accuracy of the courseware
C. Cost of the courseware
D. Instructor's use of the courseware
Answer: B

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NO.6 While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following
BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning
objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather.
The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners
it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught. Which of the following
should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements BEST describes the value of using a variety of question types during
instruction?
A. Regularly asking questions during a course helps to identify those that are paying attention.
B. Effective use of questions will enhance learners' conceptual understanding; encourage deep thinking
and meaningful participation.
C. Using a variety of questions during instruction prevents anyone in the group from becoming
disinterested with the same question types.
D. Questions asked often during a course will keep learners engaged, it is not important if they do not
know the correct answer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying
attention or participating. Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C

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NO.11 An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems
that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not
work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor.?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?
A. Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B. Measurable results from summative assessments
C. Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D. Comparing learner performance with other learners
Answer: C

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NO.14 An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning
style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?
A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B. Administer an exam to verify learner's knowledge of the material.
C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.
Answer: D

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NO.15 An instructor uses multiple forms of media to help the class understand a difficult topic. Unfortunately
learners are still having a hard time with the concept. Noticing difficulty, the instructor creates another
learning tool to explain the topic another way. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the
instructor is using?
A. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion
B. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training
C. Adapt learning methods as intended by the course designers
D. Enhance, substitute or create media as appropriate
Answer: D

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NO.16 An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the
following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D

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NO.17 An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the
question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A

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NO.18 The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning
stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A

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NO.19 An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the
skill the instructor is demonstrating?
A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B. Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C. Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.
Answer: D

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NO.20 A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has
asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting. Which
of the following should the instructor do?
A. Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B. Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C. Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D. Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts
Answer: C

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Exam Code: N10-004
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ (2009 Edition) )
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Total Q&A: 362 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following would be used to test out the security of a specific network by allowing it to
receive security attacks?
A. Honeynet
B. Honeypot
C. Vulnerability scanner
D. Network based IDS
Answer: A

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NO.2 A network technician is attempting to map a FQDN to an internal server at the address of 10.0.0.15
without NAT/PAT. Which of the following is the reason this will ultimately not work?
A. This is a private address which cannot be seen by external users.
B. The address does not have the appropriate subnet mask assigned.
C. This is a public address which can only be seen by internal users.
D. This is a private address which can only be seen by external users.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A network technician, working with a large business of 500 employees, decides to configure a server
to handle IP addressing. Which of the following would BEST allow for this setup?
A. Address routing protocol
B. Port mirroring
C. Static addresses
D. DHCP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.4 The protocols that use a three way handshake to transfer information can be found within which layer of
the OSI model?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined as 192.168.0.0/24?
A. 192.168.0.255
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 192.168.0.0
D. 192.168.0.253
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following can be configured to restrict specific ports and IP addresses from accessing the
internal network? (Select TWO).
A. Layer 2 switch
B. MAC address filtering
C. ACLs
D. IIS server
E. Port scanner
F. Firewall
Answer: CF

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NO.7 A network technician blocks access to ports 25, 110, and 143 on the firewall. Which of the following
application services will be blocked due to this?
A. Email sending and receiving
B. Domain Name Service
C. FTP access to external servers
D. Remote desktop access
Answer: A

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NO.8 hen the use of a smart card, pin number, and pass phrase is required to login to a system, which of the
following types of authentication is being used?
A. Single sign on
B. PKI
C. Two factor authentication
D. Multi-factor authentication
Answer: D

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NO.9 A network technician is troubleshooting a problem and has just established a plan of action to resolve
the problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
B. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause (e.g. question the obvious).
Answer: B

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NO.10 A bridge handles frames at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.11 A company is about to install a second network connection with a new ISP. Which of the following
routing protocols is the BEST choice?
A. IS-IS
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. RIP
Answer: B

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NO.12 A user is unable to access the company website on a laptop. A network technician verifies that the user
can access other Internet pages. According to network troubleshooting methodology, which of the
following steps should be taken NEXT?
A. Remotely connect to the user's laptop and review the network configuration settings.
B. Ping the web server from inside the network to ensure it is still up and running.
C. Check to make sure the company's website is accessible from the Internet.
D. Ensure the Ethernet cable is securely plugged into the user's laptop.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following layers of the OSI model maps to the Network Interface layer of the TCP stack?
(Select TWO).
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Network
E. Transport
Answer: AC

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NO.14 The network technician is troubleshooting a network issue by implementing a new security device. After
installing and configuring the device, which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
A. Verify full system functionality.
B. Identify the main problem and question the user.
C. Document their findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Escalate the issue to upper management.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following authentication solutions also provides AAA and uses TCP.?
A. TACACS+
B. Kerberos
C. RADIUS
D. RAS
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following metrics indentifies the number of connections that is between two devices?
A. Hop count
B. MTU
C. Latency
D. Bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is a reason to use dynamic DNS?
A. The host IP address is not listed in the firewall.
B. The host IP address is assigned by DHCP.
C. Static routes cannot be used on the host network.
D. A third-party certificate is being used.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following ports would have to be allowed through a firewall to allow SNMP traffic to pass
on its default port? (Select TWO).
A. 22
B. 23
C. 143
D. 161
E. 162
F. 8080
Answer: DE

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NO.19 Which of the following ports is the default telnet port?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following protocols is commonly used for VoIP technology?
A. Telnet
B. SMTP
C. SIP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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