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Exam Code: 000-753
Exam Name: IBM (Retail Store Solutions - 4690 Technical Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is indicated when a terminal is stopped with Z001?
A. There is a hard disk problem.
B. The terminal application is failing.
C. The terminal number has not been set.
D. The terminal is not configured in the 4690 system.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A support plan should include support procedures for handling in-store problems. What are two
recommendations for getting assistance with operational or technical problems that cannot be handled by
store management.? (Choose two.)
A. call IBM Techline
B. call the hardware service provider
C. call the store chain designated help desk
D. call IBM/Business Partner technical support
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 To load a PXE terminal, which service must be running on a store controller?
A. RMA
B. RTU
C. RPL
D. DHCP
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which approach is the recommended first step when installing a new release of the 4690 operating
system?
A. install software at the store
B. install software at a test site
C. install software in the store via Remote Operator
D. send the installation files down to the store from the host
Answer: B

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NO.5 The retailer wants to do check imaging. Which IBM 4610 SureMark printer model should they use?
A. TI4
B. TI9
C. 2CR
D. TM6
Answer: B

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NO.6 A potential 4690 customer has a requirement to implement a cost effective POS solution based on
their specific budget. The customer asks to see the list prices of all software that would be included in the
proposal. Which two IBM resources contain list prices for POS software? (Choose two.)
A. IBMLink
B. IBM sales manual
C. IBM e-Config tool
D. IBM Knowledgebase
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A customer asks if it is possible to update BIOS settings on their registers remotely. Which utility is used
to remotely update the BIOS settings on registers?
A. Remote Operator
B. Remote Terminal Utility
C. Remote Management Agent
D. Remote Auxiliary Console
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has defined the user logical name ITEMFILE in the controller configuration as
ADXLXAAN::ADX_IDT1:ITEMFILE.DAT. What logical name can you use to access the local copy of the
file?
A. $TEMFILE
B. %TEMFILE
C. %ITEMFILE
D. $ITEMFILE
Answer: A

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NO.9 The retailer is a grocery store with a pharmacy inside the store. They want to send transaction data to
the insurance companies on a real-time basis to gain the benefits of faster reimbursement. Which IBM
product is the best choice?
A. ICESoft Browser
B. Store Integrator GUI (SIGUI)
C. Remote Management Agent (RMA)
D. Data Integration Facility (DIF)
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the name of the logical filename required for each controller on the network to be able to run
Remote Management Agent?
A. RMAHOST
B. RMAAGENT
C. HOSTNAME
D. RMAMASTER
E. HOSTAGENT
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M68
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Mgmt Informix Technical Mastery Test v3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 At the operating system level, what is the name of every Informix process?
A. informix
B. oninit
C. cpuvp
D. root
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid VP class.?
A. PDQ
B. AIO
C. MACH11
D. OBJ
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which of the following scenarios is Informix the best fit?
A. Applications with variable and dynamic data records.
B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and complex multi-dimensional queries.
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution.
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which Informix utility allows you to change the logging mode for one or more databases?
A. oninit
B. ondblog
C. onmode
D. ondbmode
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Flexible Grid technology of Informix offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to communicate with other non-IBM products.
B. The ability to perform administrative tasks on multiple sites from a single server with no downtime.
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of Informix.
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M93
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Product Fundamentals Tech Mas)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is TRUE.?
A. Taskmaster Server pushes work to machines dedicated to a specific task.
B. Taskmaster clients ask Taskmaster server if there is any work to be done.
C. Only one Taskmaster client may perform a given Task.
D. Batch routing depends on the Taskmaster server configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a primary competitive advantage of Rulerunner Service?
A. Actions only return TRUE or FALSE.
B. It is decoupled from Taskmaster so it can be used with other applications.
C. It is the only capture product with claims of being rule driven.
D. It is open source.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The two main databases serviced by Taskmaster Server are called:
A. Alpha and Beta.
B. Test and Production.
C. Maintenance and Security.
D. Admin and Engine.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: COG-185
Exam Name: IBM (Cognos 8 Migrating Professional Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The recommended approach to migration consists of five steps. Four of the steps are shown below: --
Create new applications in IBM Cognos 8 -- Continue using applications in IBM Cognos Series 7
environment -- Migrate applications to IBM Cognos 8 -- Migrate multiple applications to one application
Which step is missing?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Set up interoperability
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Perform training and education
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements describe a successful migration? (Choose two.)
A. Pre-assessments, fact-finding, investigation, and execution are iterative approaches rather than a
one-time activity.
B. Identify specific goals for the migration project, and then ensure that the migration meets expectations
and adds value to your business intelligence environment.
C. Educate yourself and customers about IBM Cognos 8 and then evaluate the current IBM Cognos
Series 7 applications.
D. Use and leverage the Cognos Solution Implementation Methodology (CSIM) Migration Roadmap of
detailed activities and deliverables for a migration project.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which two rules describe how PowerPlay Client reports are migrated? (Choose two.)
A. Reporter reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Excel behavior.
B. Explorer reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Web behavior.
C. Reporter reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Client behavior.
D. Explorer reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Client behavior.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 If your customer has not yet started a migration project, which migration path should they follow from
Series 7.3 to IBM Cognos 8.3?
A. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.3 version of the migration tools to
migrate from version 4 to 8.3
B. Migrate Series 7.3 content to IBM Cognos 8.3 andthen upgrade to IBM Cognos 8.4
C. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.4 version of the migration tools to
migrate to 8.4
D. Migrate Series 7.4 content to IBM Cognos 8.4 using the migration tools
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which technical migration approach reflects using an offshore approach for additional savings of time
and money?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Hybrid
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Expand & Purge
Answer: A

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NO.6 When would a customer use Compress & Optimize.?
A. When similar reports can be consolidated into a single report.
B. When batches of BI reports can be moved over quickly to IBM Cognos 8.
C. When reports or models were not properly maintained and are no longer valid.
D. When dealing primarily with Impromptu Reports and Catalogs.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When migrating an Impromptu catalog, an xml file that uses the same file name already exists in the
target location. What will the migration process do?
A. Create a new folder called "migration" that includes the migrated xml file.
B. Create a new file to include a date time stamp.
C. Abort the process and write to the log file.
D. Replace the existing file.
Answer: D

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NO.8 From a technical perspective, which three applications can be upgraded rather than converted or
migrated? (Choose three.)
A. Visualizer
B. Decisionstream
C. NoticeCast
D. Metrics Manager
E. Transformer
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.9 With regards to Impromptu Catalog mapping, which statement is true?
A. Catalog, Report, and File pick list prompts are migrated to value prompts.
B. Impromptu table columns with the IsKey attribute set to "true" become query items with the usage
attribute set to "fact".
C. HotFiles and Snapshots are migrated, however User Defined Functions (UDFs) are not migrated.
D. Security filters for table aliases are not migrated.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which three chart types are supported when migrating a chart type within an Impromptu Report?
(Choose three.)
A. Pie
B. Bubble
C. Radar
D. Hi-low close
E. Gantt
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: COG-700
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Planning Application)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 In a distributed Cognos Planning environment, where is the online Contributor application stored and
maintained?
A. On the datastore
B. On the report server
C. On the job server
D. On the dispatcher
Answer: A

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NO.2 A modeler creates a D-Link that transfers data from an ASCII file called Franchise into a D-Cube called
Income Statement. According to proven practices, what is the recommended name for the D-Link?
A. Franchise>Income Statement
B. Franchise.csv>Inc State
C. Income Statement<Franchise
D. Income Statement<Franchise.csv
Answer: D

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NO.3 A modeler wants to create a macro that updates all D-Cubes in the model. What is the fastest way for
the modeler to create this macro?
A. Use the Macro Record option
B. Use the Macro Run option
C. Use the Macro Wizard option
D. Use the Trace Macro option
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Cognos 8 role is needed to ensure that only the required users, groups, and roles have access
to execute or schedule Contributor macros that are published to Cognos Connection?
A. Planning Rights Administrators
B. Planning Contributor Users
C. Directory Administrators
D. Server Administrators
Answer: A

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NO.5 When importing from Cognos Package Data into an A-Table, what is the minimum number of query
items that must be selected?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

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NO.6 In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration
extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?
A. A view only published data source
B. A table only published data source
C. A Contributor application data source
D. An Analyst application data source
Answer: B

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NO.7 Why would an administrator publish data to a table-only layout, instead of a view layout?
A. The administrator wants to publish only detail (non-calculated) plan data.
B. The administrator wants to publish the data to an Oracle database.
C. The administrator wants to use the published data with the Publish to Cognos Metrics Manager
extension.
D. The administrator wants to publish the data to a SQL Server database.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a D-Link using a virtual dimension on the source side called?
A. Lookup D-Link
B. Internal D-Link
C. Allocation D-Link
D. Accumulation D-Link
Answer: D

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NO.9 A target D-Cube in Analyst contains data for Central Europe, Southern Europe, and Northern Europe.
The modeler wants to transfer data into this D-Cube from an ASCII file that contains only data for
Southern Europe and Northern Europe. Given that all dimensions are paired using Match Description,
what must the modeler do to ensure that the Central Europe data in the target D-Cube does not get
erased when the D-Link runs?
A. Set the mode to Substitute
B. Assign Central Europe as the Dump item
C. Apply a "hold" command to data for Central Europe
D. Nothing; the D-Link will only transfer data for paired items
Answer: A

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NO.10 A D-Cube calculates monthly revenue by product. Revenue for a product is equal to the unit sale price
multiplied by the quantity sold. If the modeler is applying a weighted average to the Unit Sale Price item,
which should be used for the weighting?
A. Revenue
B. Quantity sold
C. Number of months
D. Number of products
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement is true about using a D-Cube allocation in a D-Link?
A. The D-Cube used for the allocation can only have two dimensions
B. The D-Cube slice can contain data formatted as text, numeric, or date/time
C. A D-Cube slice can only be used for allocation in one D-Link
D. The D-Cube slice can only contain one page of data
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which method of mapping must the modeler use to change the sign (+/-) of selected data items being
transfered by D-Link?
A. Match description
B. Local allocation
C. D-Cube allocation
D. Saved A-Table
Answer: D

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NO.13 Users of the Contributor Web grid want to be able to import data from ASCII files and Excel files as well
as local Contributor dat a.
These end users do not have any rights in the Contributor Administration Console or Analyst. What must
these users create?
A. System Link
B. Administration Link
C. D-Link
D. Local Link
Answer: D

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NO.14 The Cash Flow D-Cube tracks incoming and outgoing cash each month. The amount of cash going out
each month is always a fraction of the opening balance for the period (such as 20%). Which BiF should be
used to calculate the opening and closing balances?
A. @Movsum
B. @DelayDebt
C. @FeedParam
D. @StockFlow
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statement is true about sorting D-Cube data?
A. D-List items can be sorted alphabetically
B. Saving a D-Cube saves only the data but not the sort order
C. Rows can be sorted using one criteria and columns using another
D. An indicator appears on sorted D-Lists that allows switching of the sort order
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-622
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A user wants to be able to view the contents of a container entry, such as a package or a folder, and
view general properties of the container itself without having full access to the content. Which permission
does the administrator assign to the user.?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Traverse
D. Set Policy
Answer: C

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NO.2 To be able to access and modify any object within the portal, regardless of any security policies set for
the object, the administrator must be a member of whichbuilt-in role?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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NO.3 After the installation of IBM Cognos BI, what must be done to ensure that only select users have
unrestricted access to Public Folders in IBM Cognos Connection?
A. Add the Anonymous user to the Directory Administrators role.
B. Remove the Everyone group from the Server Administrators role.
C. Remove the Everyone group from the System Administrators role.
D. Remove the All Authenticated Users group from the Directory Administrators role.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-561
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 Implem)
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Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How is a firewall rule configured to block remote desktop (RDP) access for all interfaces and all Virtual
Local Area Networks.?
A. protocol=TCP, source port exclude RDP
B. action=ignore, select Interfaces, protocol=TCP, port=3389
C. keep all default settings but change the target port to 3389
D. action=drop, protocol=UDP, target port uncheck any and enter 3389
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which interface mode is required in order for quarantine response rules to work?
A. Bypass Mode
B. Inline Protection Mode
C. Inline Simulation Mode
D. Passive Monitoring Mode
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer wants to change the severity of an IBM Protocol Analysis Module signature from high to low
in a given protection domain. Which policy meets this requirement?
A. Security Events
B. Open Signatures
C. System Updates
D. X-Force Virtual Patch
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are two purposes for the Quarantine Rules in the Response Tuning page in the Local
Management Interface? (Choose two.)
A. add new quarantine rules
B. set network configuration options
C. temporarily disable a quarantine rule
D. review rules generated in response to intruder events
E. define how the appliance should send notifications when it detects an intrusion in the network
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Where in the IBM Security SiteProtector System Console can a customer find the link status of the
Security Interfaces on an IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. the networkinfo section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
B. the Intrusion Prevention section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
C. the Security Interfaces section on the Health Summary Network tab in the appliance Properties screen
D. the Internal Communication section on the Health Summary System tab in the appliance Properties
screen
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two user notification response object types are available in IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. SMS
B. E-mail
C. Remedy
D. Voicemail
E. SNMP Trap/Inform
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) exclusions have been added to a Protection Domain, however
events from those VLANs seem to be generated anyway. What is the most likely cause?
A. A VLAN cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
B. Multiple VLANs cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
C. Incorrect interfaces have been specified in a custom Protection Domain.
D. The same exception has not been created on the Global Protection Domain.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Where would a user be added to allow a remote user to access the IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3 Local Management Interface?
A. the Remote Access policy in IBM Security SiteProtector System (SiteProtector)
B. the User Management utility in SiteProtector
C. the Accounts and Passwords page in the Web interface
D. the Password Management menu in the SSH Configuration menu
Answer: C

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NO.9 Log Evidence is enabled for an event and an administrator wants to review the packet content. Where
in the Local Management Interface is this log file downloaded?
A. under Security Settings, select the policy that logs the event, click on Download Log, and the save file
B. select Review, under Downloads select Logs and Packet Captures, select the files, and click Download
C. on the Security Dashboard, click the Evidence Logs link, click all files related to the event, and save the
files
D. select Home Dashboard, scroll down to the section on evidence logs, select the log file(s), and click
Download
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where in the Local Management Interface is the location of the date and time of the last backup of an
IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 viewable?
A. Evidence log
B. Message log
C. System Dashboard
D. Security Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which file can be imported or compiled, and defines the format of SNMP traps for security events
responses in the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. iss.mib
B. ibm.mib
C. linux.mib
D. snmp.mib
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which area of the IBM Protocol Analysis Module technology prevents Skype from using enterprise
network bandwidth?
A. Data Security
B. Application Control
C. Threat Detection and Prevention
D. Client-side Application Protection
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are two restrictions placed on remote users using IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention
System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot reboot the appliance.
B. They cannot log in to the local console.
C. They cannot change the local user account passwords.
D. They cannot save changes to policies in the Web interface.
E. They cannot log in to the appliance when the authentication server is down.
Answer: C,E

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NO.14 Which file is accessed on the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 appliance to
determine why it is Active with Errors in IBM Security SiteProtector System?
A. Boot log file
B. Kernel log file
C. Engine0 log file
D. Messages log file
Answer: D

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NO.15 Where is the provinfo file stored?
A. /var/cache
B. /var/support/
C. root directory
D. admin directory
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-423
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Solution Developer - Information Analyzer v8.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to
troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two statements identify ways
you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of the reporting
functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule definition in an
existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D.http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProjectName>&rule
Name=<YourRuleName>
Answer: B

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NO.5 When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two components may require
capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 You submitted a column analysis job with the "Retain Scripts" set to no. The column analysis job
finished with an "error encountered" final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client.
Which option would allow you to find the source of the error.?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.
B. Rerun the job with the "Retain Scripts" turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information
Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the
job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release
the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with issues and
resolutions.
You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you create and
review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN's (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN's are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Answer: B

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NO.9 In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction of the analysis
and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis database) for
the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using Information server
security to restrict access.
Answer: C

IBM   000-423   000-423

NO.10 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information Analyzer analysis
database.
Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Answer: B

IBM   000-423   000-423 original questions

NO.11 Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information Server console
installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited (csv) file.
Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as a
Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as
a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the TXT output
option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option providing the
correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution option providing
the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting stylesheet ; run
the command and send the file.
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can
you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate
check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of
possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns;
incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis. You want to
evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI) before running
subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate the status
attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName parameters
and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and
evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-053
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Team Concert V3 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which three options are available for defining build schedules? (Choose three)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. during defined business hours
D. only if there are newly accepted changes
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which three views does the default Eclipse perspective work items provide? (Choose three.)
A. Package Explorer
B. Team Artifacts
C. Team Central
D. My Work
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which three does a setup project action create? (Choose three.)
A. a build definition
B. a stream and component
C. work item categories
D. team areas
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 In addition to Release, Iteration, and Daily Work Planning, which three capabilities does IBM Rational
Team Concert Support? (Choose three.)
A. Requirements Management
B. Work Item Management
C. Source Code Management
D. Build Management
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 How is version control of process templates accomplished?
A. automatically by IBM Rational Team Concert on every save
B. by the naming convention of the templates
C. by keeping copies on a shared drive
D. by using IBM Rational Team Concert source control of the exported process template
Answer: D

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NO.6 Work Items presentation: Which is NOT part of the default work item presentations?
A. Plan Editor Preview
B. Inline Work Item Editor
C. Work Item Editor
D. Eclipse Work Item Editor
Answer: D

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NO.7 For what purpose should a project administrator use a value set definition.?
A. to display all users in a project or team area that have a specific role
B. to display a full list of team members
C. to enable a query to show only those work items related to a specific category
D. to write a query that lists all the users in a team
Answer: A

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NO.8 When working with public dashboards, which two factors should be considered when determining the
best strategy for saving changes?
A. number of widgets being customized and elapsed load time
B. proper permissions and type of dashboard
C. number of people with permissions to edit and type of edits
D. dashboard template configuration and widget selection
Answer: C

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NO.9 In Scrum, what is a constantly prioritized to-do list of high-level work?
A. Sprint Backlog
B. Sprint
C. Product Backlog
D. Product
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three statements are true about an IBM Rational Team Concert project area? (Choose three.)
A. It has an associated process, which is a collection of practices, rules, and guidelines used to organize
and control the flow of work.
B. It has a graphical chart that illustrates business priority ranking of a project relative to other peer
projects.
C. It is typically based on a predefined process template, which can be optionally modified to satisfy any
unique needs of the project.
D. It may optionally contain team areas that define the sub-teams that work on the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: 000-M235
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Security Sales Mastery Test v4)
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Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The IBM Security Framework highlights the three ways in which IBM delivers security to our customers.
What are those three ways?
A. IBM Security Products, Professional Security Services, and Managed Security Services.
B. Professional Security Services, Managed Security Services, and Business Continuity Services
C. Managed Security Services, IBM Security Products, and Tier 1 OEM Security Vendors
D. Threat Mitigation Services, Data Security Services, and IBM Security Products
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following Tivoli Security solutions offers the quickest approaches in terms of demoing,
estimating ROI and quick implementation?
A. Tivoli Identity Manager
B. Tivoli zSecure suite
C. Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
D. Tivoli Access Manager for Single Sign-On
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the key to the significant time and money efficiencies that Tivoli Identity Manager (TIM) is able
to afford customers'?
A. Quick install and time to operation.
B. Support for a large number of target environments.
C. Assignment of users to roles and provisioning policies based on roles rather than individual users.
D. Graphical user interface that's far superior to the competition.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Network IPS, Server Protection and VSP for VMware have which competitive advantages in common.?
A. Built-in firewalls and reverse proxying capability.
B. SSL Inspection capability and support for ISO 17843.
C. Rootkit detection and file integrity checking.
D. Backing by X-Force, largest number of protected protocols and file formats and the Protocol Analysis
Modular (PAM) technologies
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the name of the IBM Security research and development organization:
A. Global Security Operations Center
B. X-Force
C. X-Cert
D. Security Intel Resource
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-819
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Application Developer V8 Associate )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on the server using
Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application Developer workbench
window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the debug perspective on
Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor
Answer: A

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NO.5 A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of servlets for the first
time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project? (Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard screens to
configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to the web
project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" entry to the web application
deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" annotation
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8 provides support
for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided to make Web
2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an application is paused.
Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the FacesContext
object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time consuming.
What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will print the
values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two are Session Bean interfaces.? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface
Answer: A,B

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