IBM 000-156 for the latest training materials: 一月 2014

2014年1月30日星期四

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Exam Code: HH0-440
Exam Name: Hitachi (Storage Architect - Performance and Virtualization)
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer is using Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V
and runs an Oracle database on HDP Volumes allocated to a HDP Pool. The customer is experiencing
unexpected growth of the database and a lack of capacity in the HDP Pool. What should be done?
A. Build a new HDP Pool using the same disk and RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new
pool.
B. Build a new HDP Pool using any disk and any RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new pool.
C. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using the same RAID and disk type.
D. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using any RAID and disk type.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers' SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slow downs involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
Answer:AD

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NO.4 Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups..
D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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NO.5 A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio
E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 A customer, which runs a large Web server farm as an Internet service and hosting provider, wants to
consolidate the data from all these servers from the internal server disks to an iSCSI SAN solution which
uses a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V as the storage system. The IO is generally random read in
small block size. Which two RAID Group configurations would you recommend for the USP V? (Choose
two.)
A. RAID1 2+2
B. RAID1 4+4 C. RAID5 7+1
D. RAID6 6+2
Answer: CD

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NO.7 What happens when the Extended Round-Robin load balancing algorithm is used with an LDEV that
is executing only random type IOs?
A. Performance will be severely impacted.
B. Load balancing will be disabled for this LDEV.
C. Round-Robin will be used.
D. HGLAM will be notified of this inconsistency.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new application, which three metrics are
necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

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NO.9 Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer:AB

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NO.10 Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)
A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE

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NO.12 A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization's email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager
C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
Answer:AB

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NO.14 When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
Answer: BCE

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NO.15 Which VMware multi-pathing scheme should be used to avoid non-owning access with HDS modular
storage systems with multiple VMware servers?
A. Most Recently Used (MRU)
B. Fixed
C. Round-Robin
D. Extended Round-Robin
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B

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NO.17 In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB

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NO.18 Which three metrics aid in calculating how long a block of data remains available in cache after its last
access? (Choose three.)
A. IOPS rate into the cache partition or storage system
B. number of available cache segments
C. the cache hit rate
D. average response time
E. average LUN queue size
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 Which two statements are true about the Hitachi Tuning Manager Agent for RAID Product Interval (PI)
record type? (Choose two.)
A. Performance data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
B. Configuration data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
C. Performance Reporter can directly access Product Interval records through Hitachi Tuning Manager.
D. Product Interval.
Answer:AC

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NO.20 To eliminate disk related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: HH0-050
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Technology)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two physical cable types does Ethernet use for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
A. firewire
B. 3-Phase
C. fiber optic
D. twisted pair
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A customer wants to replicate their database for the accounting and finance departments.
What is a benefit of accomplishing this with a clone replication technology?
A. It uses less storage than a snapshot copy.
B. It creates an exact copy of the database.
C. It identifies index corruption on the database.
D. It provides continuous data protection.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which term defines the shape of a network or the arrangement of devices on a network?
A. interface
B. topology
C. protocol
D. zone
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are three common network terms? (Choose three.)
A. LAN
B. DAS
C. ATA
D. node
E. WAN
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 When using IP to transfer data over a network, which protocol re-combines IP packets into the
correct order to re-create the message sent from the source?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. UDP
D. TCP
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two cache partition management functions would a storage manager perform to
improve storage performance? (Choose two.)
A. Virtualize heterogeneous storage resources.
B. Adjust storage resources in response to business changes.
C. Dedicate storage resources to certain applications.
D. Duplicate storage resources within cache.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which backup and recovery factor does RTO represent?
A. RTO measures how long it takes to resume essential operations.
B. RTO measures productivity lost in the event of an outage.
C. RTO measures loss of production permissible when resuming after a disruption.
D. RTO measures the financial loss incurred due to an outage.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are two strengths of implementing storage in a SAN compared to using DAS? (choose
two.)
A. It costs less than a DAS solution.
B. It facilitates data management.
C. It enables all applications to access all data.
D. It limits access to data to the owning server.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 What are two advantages of implementing a thin provisioning storage solution? (Choose two.)
A. It enables the logical partitioning of ports, cache and disks (parity groups).
B. Striping data across many spindles optimizes back-end performance.
C. Provisioning storage from a virtual pool improves storage utilization.
D. Large volume performance is increased because each parity group has a unique workload.
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 How many partitions can be found in the boot partition table found at the beginning of the drive?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.2 In DOS and Windows, how many bytes are in one FAT directory entry?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
E. Variable
Answer: C

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NO.3 A sector on a hard drive contains how many bytes?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 2048
D. 4096
Answer:A

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NO.4 A hard drive has 8 sectors per cluster. File Mystuff.doc has a logical file size of 13,000 bytes. How
many clusters will be used by Mystuff.doc?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following would most likely be an add-in card?
A. A motherboard
B. The board that connects to the power supply
C. A video card that is connected to the motherboard in the AGP slot
D. Anything plugged into socket 7
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are assigned to assist with the search and seizure of several computers. The magistrate ordered
that the computers cannot be seized unless they are found to contain any one of ten previously identified
images. You currently have the ten images in JPG format. Using the EnCase methodology, how would
you best handle this situation?
A. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for hild porn? Use an EnCase DOS boot disk
to conduct a text search for ?hild porn?
B. Use FastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to acquire forensic images of the hard drives, then search
the evidence files for the previously identified images.
C. Use FastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Go to the Gallery view and
search for the previously identified images.
D. Use FastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Conduct a hash analysis of
the files on the hard drives, using a hash library containing the hash values of the previously identified
images.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is commonly used to encode e-mail attachments?
A. JPEG
B. GIF
C. EMF
D. Base64
Answer: D

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NO.8 The FAT in the File Allocation Table file system keeps track of:
A. File fragmentation
B. Every addressable cluster on the partition
C. Clusters marked as bad
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 When can an evidence file containing a NTFS partition be logically restored to a FAT 32 partition?
A. When the FAT 32 is the same size or bigger.
B. When the FAT 32 has the same number of sectors / clusters.
C. Never
D. Both a and b
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following directories contain the information that is found on a Windows 98 Desktop?
A. C:\Windows\Desktop
B. C:\Desktop
C. C:\Program files\Programs\Desktop
D. C:\Startup\Desktop\Items
Answer:A

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NO.11 The EnCase default export folder is:
A. A global setting that can be changed.
B. A case-specific setting that can be changed.
C. A global setting that cannot be changed.
D. A case-specific setting that cannot be changed.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Within EnCase, clicking on ave?on the toolbar affects what file(s)? Within EnCase, clicking on ?ave?on
the toolbar affects what file(s)?
A. The open case file
B. The configuration .ini files
C. The evidence files
D. All of the above
Answer:A

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NO.13 The following keyword was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would be found. All
search criteria have default settings. Tom
A. Tomorrow
B. Tom
C. Stomp
D. TomJ@hotmail.com
Answer: ABCD

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NO.14 In the EnCase environment, the term xternal viewers?is best described as: In the EnCase environment,
the term ?xternal viewers?is best described as:
A. Programs that are exported out of an evidence file.
B. Programs that are associated with EnCase to open specific file types.
C. Any program that is loaded on the lab hard drive.
D. Any program that will work with EnCase.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The EnCase methodology dictates that ________ be created prior to acquiring evidence.
A. an .E01 file on the lab drive
B. a unique directory on the lab drive for case management
C. a text file for notes
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.16 The end of a logical file to the end of the cluster that the file ends in is called:
A. Unallocated space
B. Allocated space
C. Available space
D. Slack
Answer: D

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NO.17 When a document is printed using EMF in Windows, what file(s) are generated in the spooling
process?
A. The .SPL file
B. The .SHD file
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a or b
Answer: C

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NO.18 The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s) that would
result. Jan 1 st , 2?0?00
A. Jan 1 st , 1900
B. Jan 1 st , 2000
C. Jan 1 st , 2001
D. Jan 1 st , 2100
Answer: B

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NO.19 A file extension and signature can be manually added by:
A. Using the new set feature under hash sets.
B. Using the new file signature feature under file signatures.
C. Using the new library feature under hash libraries.
D. Right-clicking on a file and selecting dd.? 5LJKWFOLFNLQJRQDILOHDQGVHOHFWLQJ ? GG
Answer: B

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A. An MD5 hash
B. A 32 bit CRC
C. A running log
D. Nothing. Restored volumes are not verified.
Answer:A

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NO.1 How can DLP file filters be configured to detect Office 2010 files? (Select all that apply.)
A. File TypE. Microsoft Office(msoffice)
B. File TypE. Archive(zip)
C. File TypE. Unknown Filetype(unknown)
D. File NamE. "*.ppt", "*.doc", "*.xls"
E. File NamE. "*.pptx", "*.docx", "*.xlsx"
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which of the following must be configured on a FortiGate unit to redirect content requests to
remote web cache servers?
A. WCCP must be enabled on the interface facing the Web cache.
B. You must enabled explicit Web-proxy on the incoming interface.
C. WCCP must be enabled as a global setting on the FortiGate unit.
D. WCCP must be enabled on all interfaces on the FortiGate unit through which HTTP traffic is
passing.
Answer: A

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NO.3 For Data Leak Prevention, which of the following describes the difference between the block
and quarantine actions?
A. A block action prevents the transaction. A quarantine action blocks all future transactions,
regardless of the protocol.
B. A block action prevents the transaction. A quarantine action archives the data.
C. A block action has a finite duration. A quarantine action must be removed by an administrator.
D. A block action is used for known users. A quarantine action is used for unknown users.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are correct regarding Application Control?
A. Application Control is based on the IPS engine.
B. Application Control is based on the AV engine.
C. Application Control can be applied to SSL encrypted traffic.
D. Application Control cannot be applied to SSL encrypted traffic.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? (Select all
that apply.)
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that function as multiple,
independent units.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP , logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
D. Only administrative users with a 'super_admin' profile will be able to enter multiple VDOMs to
make configuration changes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Examine the exhibit shown below then answer the question that follows it.
Within the UTM Proxy Options, the CA certificate Fortinet_CA_SSLProxy defines which of the
following:
A. FortiGate unit's encryption certificate used by the SSL proxy.
B. FortiGate unit's signing certificate used by the SSL proxy.
C. FortiGuard's signing certificate used by the SSL proxy.
D. FortiGuard's encryption certificate used by the SSL proxy.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following represents the method used on a FortiGate unit running FortiOS
version 4.2 to apply traffic shaping to P2P traffic, such as BitTorrent?
A. Apply a Traffic Shaper to a BitTorrent entry in an Application Control List.
B. Enable the Shape option in a Firewall policy with a Service set to BitTorrent.
C. Define a DLP Rule to match against BitTorrent traffic and include the rule in a DLP Sensor with
Traffic Shaping enabled.
D. Specify the amount of Rate Limiting to be applied to BitTorrent traffic through the P2P settings of
the Firewall Policy Protocol Options.
Answer: A

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NO.8 FSSO provides a single sign on solution to authenticate users transparently to a FortiGate unit
using credentials stored in Windows Active Directory.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding FSSO in a Windows domain environment
when NTLM and Polling Mode are not used? (Select all that apply.)
A. An FSSO Collector Agent must be installed on every domain controller.
B. An FSSO Domain Controller Agent must be installed on every domain controller.
C. The FSSO Domain Controller Agent will regularly update user logon information on the FortiGate
unit.
D. The FSSO Collector Agent will retrieve user information from the Domain Controller Agent and
will send the user logon information to the FortiGate unit.
E. For non-domain computers, the only way to allow FSSO authentication is to install an FSSO client.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Data Leak Prevention archiving gives the ability to store files and message data onto a
FortiAnalyzer unit for which of the following types of network traffic? (Select all that apply.)
A. SNMP
B. IPSec
C. SMTP
D. POP3
E. HTTP
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 Which of the following represents the correct order of criteria used for the selection of a
Master unit within a FortiGate High Availability (HA) cluster when master override is disabled?
A. 1. port monitor, 2. unit priority, 3. up time, 4. serial number
B. 1. port monitor, 2. up time, 3. unit priority, 4. serial number
C. 1. unit priority, 2. up time, 3. port monitor, 4. serial number
D. 1. up time, 2. unit priority, 3. port monitor, 4. serial number
Answer: B

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NO.11 What advantages are there in using a hub-and-spoke IPSec VPN configuration instead of a
fully-meshed set of IPSec tunnels? (Select all that apply.)
A. Using a hub and spoke topology is required to achieve full redundancy.
B. Using a hub and spoke topology simplifies configuration because fewer tunnels are required.
C. Using a hub and spoke topology provides stronger encryption.
D. The routing at a spoke is simpler, compared to a meshed node.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 In a High Availability cluster operating in Active-Active mode, which of the following correctly
describes the path taken by the SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a subordinate
unit?
A. Request: Internal Host; Master FortiGate; Slave FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
B. Request: Internal Host; Master FortiGate; Slave FortiGate; Master FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
C. Request: Internal Host; Slave FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
D. Request: Internal Host; Slave FortiGate; Master FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager
without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below
acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management
B. Event management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Problem management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration
management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a service catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D

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NO.10 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
What services to offer and to whom?
What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the continual service improvement
model/approach.?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we have arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get
there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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NO.7 A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
To automatically detect service affecting events
To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize
the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to
keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low
and this helps to minimize salaries
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following are managed by facilities management? Hardware within a data centre or
computer room Applications Power and cooling equipment Recovery sites
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C

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NO.13 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C

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NO.14 The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
(CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B

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NO.17 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B

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NO.20 Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EX0-115
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000)
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Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident management
D. Problem Management
Answer: C

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NO.3 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.4 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.5 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.7 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.8 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.9 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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NO.10 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SCNP-EN
Exam Name: EXIN (SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 233 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single
page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this
user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP .
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially
dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the
call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite
the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller
asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk
asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming
from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's
configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover
to the new equipment.
Answer: D, E

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NO.3 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.4 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory,
regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance
of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and
interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information
processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for
information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to
ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized
access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent
unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.5 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to
evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the
following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A, B, C, D

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