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Exam Code: JN0-562
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work
with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A. Web Proxy Policies
B. Web Proxy Servers
C. Web Cache Policies
D. Web Passthrough Proxy
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Which resource example should you use to define resource access to a UNIX file share?
A. server/user
B. \\server\share
C. tcp://host:443
D. tcp://host:137/users
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two Terminal Services clients can be delivered automatically from the IVE to users? (Choose
two.)
A. Citrix ICA
B. Tera Term
C. SecureCRT
D. Windows Terminal Service
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. ACE
C. SAML
D. LDAP
E. SiteMinder
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 Resource Profiles support creating policies for which two technologies? (Choose two.)
A. secure meeting
B. network connect
C. terminal services
D. Web applications
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from
different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are two benefits of using SSL? (Choose two.)
A. SSL is supported in all Web browsers.
B. SSL usually requires no client-side configuration.
C. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure than that of an
IPSec client.
D. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather than the
application layer.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 What is the minimum information that must be configured by an administrator to create a resource
policy? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. username
C. policy name
D. session timeout
Answer: AC

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NO.9 What are two possible reasons for W-SAM not starting on the client? (Choose two.)
A. Java is disabled in the Sign-in policy.
B. ActiveX autoinstall is disabled in the role.
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. The user does not have administrator privileges on the machine.
Answer: CD

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NO.10 You create a set of role mapping rules. You select "Merge settings for all assigned roles." The second
role mapping rule has the "Stop processing rules when this rule matches" option selected. A user logs in
that matches the first three rules. What happens?
A. This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the
configuration.
B. The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging
follows the standard merging criteria.
C. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only
merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE's built-in permissive merging rules.
D. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just
matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined
by the second role.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is Cache Cleaner used for?
A. to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
B. to remove content downloaded during the IVE session
C. to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A. behind the Internet firewall
B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement accurately describes Resource Profiles?
A. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and ACLs.
B. Resource Profiles are where ACLs are setup for resources.
C. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and their discriptions.
D. Resource Profiles are where the resource, role, and ACL are in one location.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are two reasons for using Network Connect? (Choose two.)
A. When the ability to disable split tunneling is required.
B. When the client will need to redirect traffic based on process name.
C. When the client will use applications with server-initiated connections.
D. When the client will not have administrator privileges on their machines.
Answer: AC

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NO.15 What does a sign-in policy map users to when browsing a specified URL?
A. A list of possible user roles.
B. Specific resources as stated in resource policies.
C. The URL presents one or more authentication realms to the user for authentication.
D. The login is passed to an authentication server for verification, and an authorization server for user
attribute information.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback
addresses are assigned correctly?
A. HOSTS file
B. ARP cache
C. LMHOSTS file
D. local route table
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are
available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A. Certificate
B. User Attribute
C. RSA Attributes
D. Group Membership
Answer: AB

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NO.18 Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication
information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: C

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NO.19 You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on
the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries.
How do you proceed?
A. Enable split tunneling.
B. Disable split tunneling.
C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: JN0-560
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate.....)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 JSAM starts, but the client cannot connect:
Which two questions should you consider when troubleshooting this problem?
(Choose Two)
A. is ActiveX allowed in browser?
B. Is the user logged in under the correct account?
C. Does the user have a personal firewall blocking 127x.x.x?
D. Has the host file been rewritten to redirect the traffic to a loopback address?
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following elements can you NO modify on the sign-in page?
A. prompts
B. error messages
C. button text
D. screen size
E. logo
Answer: D

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NO.3 You install Central Manager and now want to filter your logs to extract
information about system events.
What is the easiest way to create simple log filters?
A. You type the query in by hand in the Edit query field, then select Update.
B. You create the query in the query field using the filer variables Dictionary.
C. In the log display, you click on a field containing the value you want to use as a filter.
D. The Central Manager does not allow for customized logging. You must by a special
license to perform log filtering.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a drawback of using Application Layer Access?
A. limited auding
B. OS/JVM compatibility issues
C. Only TCP/IP level authorization
D. Limited resource access o enterprise web applications and resource
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 What are two possible reasons for WSAM not starting on the client? (choose two)
A. Java is disabled in the browser
B. Active x is disabled in the browser
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. There is a possible conflict with other LSP-based applications like IPSec, VPN clients
or Spyware.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 A user is not getting access to needed resources. They are currently unavailable to
work with directly.
What information do you need to use the simulation tool to work on their problem?
(choose three)
A. remain
B. resource
C. username
D. role mapping
E. user password
F. admin override password
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the sing-in policy?
A. The Sign-in Policy controls whether or not a user can sign-in based on role
membership
B. The sign-in policy defines the URLs that users and administrator can use to access the
IVE.
C. The Sign-in Policy controls which options are available on the login screen based on
the users permissions.
D. The Sign-in Policy controls who can actually get to the login page, based on IP
address, certificate information,Host checker and other criteria
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the GUI? (Choose three)
A. ping
B. snoop
C. debug
D. tcpdump
E. trace route
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.13 What are two strength of SSL? (Choose two)
A. SSL is familiar o most users.
B. SSL does no need to be installed or configured.
C. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather
than the applicationlayer.
D. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure
than that of an IPSec clien.
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.16 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 What are two functions performed by the inermediation engine?
A. Authorization :This function insures users trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then forwards requests o the inside server using those credentials.
B. Authentication: This function insures user trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C. Transformer: This function can modify the "chunked" data stream before it passes he
data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and
scripts to refer to "virtual"URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliances.
D. Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by
the transformers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 Cache Cleaner is primarily used to:
A. Determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
B. Remove web content downloaded during the remote access session
C. Remove web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. Prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
Answer: B

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NO.20 Host Checker is primarily used to:
A. Remove unwanted files from the remote machine
B. Determine the surety posture of the remote machine
C. Distribute software posture to the remote machine
D. Capture sign in credentials of the remote user
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Juniper (Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT))
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Total Q&A: 201 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 A company is deploying a new 802.1X port-based security infrastructure to allow users to
access resources through wired Ethernet ports. However they recently deployed an RSA
token-based system for users to connect remotely. The network administrator wants to reuse the
same security database for 802.1X port-based security.
Which 802.1X authentication protocol is required?
A. EAP-TLS
B. LAN-PEAP
C. RSA-EAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.2 During the BGP route-resolution process, the Junos OS must calculate the appropriate
next-hop based on the BGP protocol next-hop attribute.
Which two routing tables are checked during this process in a default Junos configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. inet.0
B. inet.1
C. inet.2
D. inet.3
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Voice traffic is coming in on UDP port 17689. This traffic must be classified into the
expedited-forwarding forwarding class.
Which type of classifier is needed?
A. code point alias
B. rewrite marker
C. multifield
D. behavior aggregate
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which option is a valid IPv6 multicast address?
A. fe80::205:8640:471:3200/ 64
B. ::172.16.0.5 /126
C. ff03:365:ba::23
D. ff01:cgfc:345:22::226:8ff:fee4:bf6f
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have been asked to implement a private VLAN with two community VLANs.
This private VLAN will be confined to a single switch in your Layer 2 network.
This private VLAN, along with other VLANs configured on the switch, will require gateway services
provided through a connected router.
Which statement about this deployment is true?
A. All isolated ports must be configured as trunk ports.
B. A minimum of one promiscuous trunk port is required.
C. Both community VLANs must have an assigned VLAN IDs.
D. A minimum of one private VLAN trunk port is required.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A network routes IPv4 traffic only. You want to add IPv6 to the network, but you must use a
single IGP for both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic.
Which protocol meets this requirement?
A. OSPFv2
B. BGPv4
C. ES-ISv1
D. OSPFv3
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three attributes must a BGP update contain? (Choose three.)
A. next-hop
B. MED
C. origin
D. AS-path
E. local preference
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Port authentication falls back to Captive Portal.
In which two scenarios would the port authentication move back to 802.1X? (Choose two.)
A. if any MAC RADIUS request packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in
authenticated/authenticating state
B. if Captive Portal is deactivated on the interface
C. if the user gets logged out
D. if the EAP packet is received on the interface and if there are no sessions in
authenticated/authenticating state
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 You are AS 6573.
Which AS path regular expression matches only routes originated in your AS?
A. "6573.*"
B. ".*"
C. "{"
D. "

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Exam Code: JN0-696
Exam Name: Juniper (Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC))
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Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-13

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NO.1 Users at a branch office report that they cannot reach an internal Web server. The users
connect through a single SRX Series device to reach the Web server. A security policy has been
configured on the device that allows traffic to flow between interfaces in the Trust zone.
What is causing this problem?
A. The interface on the device that connects to the Web server is not in the Trust zone.
B. The IPsec VPN connection between the users and the Web server is down.
C. There is a host inbound traffic configuration problem.
D. There is an antispam configuration problem.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your SRX Series device has the following configuration:
user@host> show security policies
...
Policy: my-policy, State: enabled, Index: 5, Sequence number: 1
Source addresses: any Destination addresses: any
Applications: snmp
Action: reject
From zone: trust, To zone: untrust
...
When traffic matches my-policy, you want the device to silently drop the traffic; however, you
notice that the device is replying with ICMP unreachable messages instead.
What is causing this behavior?
A. the snmp application
B. the reject action
C. the trust zone
D. the untrust zone
Answer: C

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NO.3 You notice that the secondary node of a chassis cluster has become disabled.
What caused this behavior?
A. The fxp0 interface on the secondary device failed.
B. The control link between the devices failed.
C. A reth on the secondary device failed.
D. An IPsec tunnel between the two devices failed.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are having problems establishing an IPsec tunnel between two SRX Series devices.
What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. proposal mismatch
B. antivirus configuration
C. preshared key mismatch
D. TCP MSS clamping is disabled
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 You want to allow remote users using PCs running Windows 7 to access the network using an
IPsec VPN. You implement a route-based hub-and-spoke VPN; however, users report that they are
not able to access the network.
What is causing this problem?
A. The remote clients do not have proper licensing.
B. Hub-and-spoke VPNs cannot be route-based; they must be policy-based.
C. The remote clients' OS is not supported.
D. Hub-and-spoke VPNs do not support remote client access; a dynamic VPN must be implemented
instead.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Two SRX Series devices are having problems establishing an IPsec VPN session. One of the
devices has a firewall filter applied to its gateway interface that rejects UDP traffic.
What would resolve the problem?
A. Disable the IKE Phase 1 part of the session establishment.
B. Disable the IKE Phase 2 part of the session establishment.
C. Change the configuration so that session establishment uses TCP .
D. Edit the firewall filter to allow UDP port 500.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-201
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.3 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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NO.4 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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NO.7 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.9 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.11 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.12 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.13 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.16 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.17 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.18 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate.....)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 A user is not getting access to needed resources. They are currently unavailable to
work with directly.
What information do you need to use the simulation tool to work on their problem?
(choose three)
A. remain
B. resource
C. username
D. role mapping
E. user password
F. admin override password
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a drawback of using Application Layer Access?
A. limited auding
B. OS/JVM compatibility issues
C. Only TCP/IP level authorization
D. Limited resource access o enterprise web applications and resource
Answer: B

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NO.6 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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NO.7 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.8 Cache Cleaner is primarily used to:
A. Determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
B. Remove web content downloaded during the remote access session
C. Remove web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. Prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 What are two possible reasons for WSAM not starting on the client? (choose two)
A. Java is disabled in the browser
B. Active x is disabled in the browser
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. There is a possible conflict with other LSP-based applications like IPSec, VPN clients
or Spyware.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which of the following elements can you NO modify on the sign-in page?
A. prompts
B. error messages
C. button text
D. screen size
E. logo
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are two functions performed by the inermediation engine?
A. Authorization :This function insures users trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then forwards requests o the inside server using those credentials.
B. Authentication: This function insures user trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C. Transformer: This function can modify the "chunked" data stream before it passes he
data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and
scripts to refer to "virtual"URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliances.
D. Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by
the transformers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the sing-in policy?
A. The Sign-in Policy controls whether or not a user can sign-in based on role
membership
B. The sign-in policy defines the URLs that users and administrator can use to access the
IVE.
C. The Sign-in Policy controls which options are available on the login screen based on
the users permissions.
D. The Sign-in Policy controls who can actually get to the login page, based on IP
address, certificate information,Host checker and other criteria
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the GUI? (Choose three)
A. ping
B. snoop
C. debug
D. tcpdump
E. trace route
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.17 What are two strength of SSL? (Choose two)
A. SSL is familiar o most users.
B. SSL does no need to be installed or configured.
C. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather
than the applicationlayer.
D. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure
than that of an IPSec clien.
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 Host Checker is primarily used to:
A. Remove unwanted files from the remote machine
B. Determine the surety posture of the remote machine
C. Distribute software posture to the remote machine
D. Capture sign in credentials of the remote user
Answer: B

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NO.19 JSAM starts, but the client cannot connect:
Which two questions should you consider when troubleshooting this problem?
(Choose Two)
A. is ActiveX allowed in browser?
B. Is the user logged in under the correct account?
C. Does the user have a personal firewall blocking 127x.x.x?
D. Has the host file been rewritten to redirect the traffic to a loopback address?
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 You install Central Manager and now want to filter your logs to extract
information about system events.
What is the easiest way to create simple log filters?
A. You type the query in by hand in the Edit query field, then select Update.
B. You create the query in the query field using the filer variables Dictionary.
C. In the log display, you click on a field containing the value you want to use as a filter.
D. The Central Manager does not allow for customized logging. You must by a special
license to perform log filtering.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-314
Exam Name: Juniper (Junos Pulse Access Control, Specialist (JNCIS-AC))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 222 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 What is a type of firewall enforcer supported by the Junos Pulse Access Control Service?
A. Checkpoint firewall
B. SRX Series device
C. DP sensor
D. MX Series device
Answer: B

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NO.2 You navigate to "UAC" > "Infranet Enforcer" > "Auth Table Mapping" in the admin GUI. You see
one policy, which is the unmodified, original default policy.
Which statement is true?
A. Dynamic auth table mapping is not enabled.
B. A successful authentication attempt will result in a new authentication table entry, which will be
delivered only to the Junos enforcer protecting the network from which the user has authenticated.
C. To create a static auth table mapping, you must delete the default policy.
D. The default policy applies only to the factory-default role User.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer wants to create a custom Junos Pulse configuration. Which two are required?
(Choose two)
A. Connection set
B. Configuration set
C. Custom installer
D. Component set
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 A customer is trying to decide which 802.1X inner protocol to use on their network. The
customer requires that no passwords be sent across the network in plain text, that the protocol be
supported by the Windows native supplicant, and that the protocol supports password changes at
Layer 2.
Which protocol would meet the customer's needs?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PAP
D. EAP-MSCHAPv2
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three settings are accessible from the serial console menu on a MAG Series device?
(Choose three.)
A. The ping command
B. Factory default reset
C. Personality image
D. License imports
E. Admin login credentials
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 You have a Junos Pulse Secure Access Service acting as an IF-MAP client, configured to
federate all user roles to a Junos Pulse Access Control Service acting as an IF-MAP Federation server.
A remote user using Junos Pulse logs in to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service; the Junos Pulse
Secure Access Service provisions a remote access session for that user.
What happens next?
A. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service redirects the user to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
for authentication
B. The Junos Pulse Access Control Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access
for that user.
C. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service publishes user session and role information to the IFMAP
Federation server,
D. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access
for that user.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer has purchased a third-party switch to use for Layer 2 access with their Junos Pulse
Access Control Service. When configuring the switch on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service, the
customer does not find a make/model entry for it.
Which two actions should the customer take to make the switch work with the Junos Pulse Access
Control Service? (Choose two.)
A. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service as a standard RADIUS.
B. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service using the "Any" make/model.
C. Add the switch as a firewall enforcer.
D. Obtain and configure the RADIUS dictionary for the switch and use that vendor listing for the
make/model.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 You are configuring an active/passive cluster of SRX Series devices as the firewall enforcer on a
MAG Series device. Which statement is true?
A. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single serial number of an SRX Series
device defined in each configuration.
B. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with both serial numbers of the clustered SRX Series
devices defined in the configuration.
C. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single IP address of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
D. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with the VIP of the clustered SRX Series device
defined in the configuration.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-533
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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NO.4 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 You have configured integrated Web filtering in the ScreenOS software. A URL appears in the
blacklist, the whitelist, and a user-defined category. Additionally, the device can obtain
categorization information from the SurfControl server.
Which configuration will the device use to determine the action to take for Web requests for the
URL?
A. the blacklist
B. the SurfControl categorization
C. the user-defined category
D. the whitelist
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the appropriate VPN monitor status?
A. The VPN is active and the peer is down.
B. The VPN is active and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
C. The VPN is active and the peer is up.
D. The VPN is inactive and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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