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Exam Code: 250-315
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 167 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-06

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NO.1 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.2 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.6 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to
the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be prevented from
working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the performance
of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.10 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason for
this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.12 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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NO.14 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.17 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection
12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and Intrusion Prevention
technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all communications from an attacking
host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.18 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.20 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to bypass
traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology blocks
such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-253
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-06

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NO.1 In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is
decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three
remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on.?
A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When architecting Coordination Point (CP) server into a Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) environment,
what should be done to ensure the CP service remains online?
A. configure multiple CP server instances on the same node
B. configure CP server as a resource in a VCS cluster
C. ensure that the CP server is backed up regularly
D. ensure that the CP server is on a reliable network
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two triggers can only be enabled at the resource level? (Select two.)
A. Resrestart
B. Resadminwait
C. Resfault
D. Resstatechange
E. resnotoff
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only
has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown.
Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?
A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is manually adding a node named sym3 to an existing two-node cluster. What must
be done after installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the new node?
A. run hastart -add sym3 on any node
B. run hasys -force sym3 on the new node
C. run haclus -addnode sym3 on the new node
D. run hastart on the new node
Answer: D

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NO.6 One of the three coordinator disks needs to be repurposed as a data disk. What can the administrator
do to accommodate growth in the data center and still provide SCSI-3 I/O fencing?
A. use gatekeeper LUNs to provide additional coordinator disks
B. replace all coordinator disks with Coordination Point servers
C. remove a coordinator disk from the cluster and replace it with a Coordination Point server
D. use compressed disks to double the space available for coordinator disks to enable future growth
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an application under Veritas Cluster Server control?
(Select two.)
A. verify that the application agent supports the new version
B. verify that the new version is supported with haagent verify
C. freeze the application service group
D. freeze the application resources
E. stop the application agent on all systems
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What is the first step when upgrading the operating system on a single node in a running multi-node
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) cluster?
A. offline service groups on the node
B. freeze the service groups
C. migrate parallel service groups
D. shut down VCS on all nodes
Answer: A

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NO.9 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has configured preferred fencing. Cluster communication breaks and separates sym1
from the other cluster nodes. Which node(s) will survive the fencing race?
A. sym1 only
B. sym2 only
C. sym3 only
D. both sym2 and sym3
Answer: D

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NO.10 An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other
actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?
A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two actions can be taken to determine whether an application clustered with Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) has been successfully started or stopped? (Select two.)
A. examine the online log file
B. examine the engine log file
C. view the Security Log from the VCS Java GUI
D. view the Log Desk from the VCS Java GUI
E. view the Application_A.log file
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 The administrator of a four-node Veritas cluster has configured notifications as highly available for all
notification methods. How many notification manager resources are running when all nodes are
considered?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of resources are considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online?
A. OnOnly
B. OnOff
C. Persistent
D. None
Answer: B

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NO.14 While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system
versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)
A. user security
B. inability to handle load on failover
C. cluster upgrades
D. operational complexity
E. network connectivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which two resource attributes need to be correctly set to prevent an unplanned outage due to an
improper configuration that might cause a fault during the online process of the new resource? (Select
two.)
A. AutoStart
B. Critical
C. Enabled
D. AutoDisabled
E. MonitorOnly
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 250-271
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX)
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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-06

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NO.1 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.2 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. Disk Staging
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.3 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which command is used to manually register a new media server with the database on the master
server?
A. nbemmcmd
B. nbdevconfig
C. bpminlicense
D. bpsetconfig
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two tasks does the catalog backup perform? (Select two.)
A. ensures the catalog backup is created in a safe location
B. automatically assigns tapes to the CatalogBackup pool
C. appends to existing data on tape
D. backs up the catalog only when there are no client backups in progress
E. copies the NBDB to a staging area before backing it up
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a Standardpolicy type for synthetic backups. What is
required for a successful Synthetic Full if the client is offline?
A. successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
B. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
C. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
D. successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
Answer: D

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NO.8 An organization needs to automatically back up a server's data every other Sunday with a backup start
window from 7:00 PM to 10:00 PM. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this
backup schedule be configured to ensure it runs every other Sunday at 7:00 PM?
A. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days
Answer: D

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NO.9 A backup job failed. The backup administrator needs to collect log files for the services and daemons
that use Unified-style logging. Which step must be performed by the backup administrator before sending
the collected log files to Symantec technical support for analysis?
A. create log directories for the Symantec NetBackup services and daemons
B. set the Global logging level setting to a value of 5
C. run nbsu on the master server
D. run nbcplogs on the master server
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
A. ftp_to_client
B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B

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NO.11 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.12 An organization is installing a Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server and the license key is
unavailable during the installation process. What will be the result of the installation?
A. All features will be enabled for a 30-day evaluation period.
B. Only core functionality will be enabled.
C. Installation of the master server will fail.
D. Symantec NetBackup services will fail to start on the master server until a license key is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.13 An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
NetBackup media server is being used to perform a backup of the catalog. Which Symantec NetBackup
version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
A. 6.5, 7.0, or 7.1
B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which default Windows Open File Backup method is used during a backup for a newly installed
Symantec NetBackup 7.5 Windows 2003 client.?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. snapshot provider configured in Global Client Attribute
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.15 A company expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 environment by adding a new media server. What
is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media server
information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. run the install_bp script
D. run the install_client_files script
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-192
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations:Security Solutions 2.0 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-06

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NO.1 Which method does the MetaFisher bot use to extract data from a system?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. peer to peer
D. IRC
Answer: B

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NO.2 A cybercriminal wants to maintain future access to a compromised system.
Which tool would the cybercriminal use to accomplish this?
A. rootkit
B. keylogger
C. backdoor
D. trojan
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the three types of scans used to identify systems?
A. port, network, and vulnerability
B. protocol, hardware, and services
C. port, network, and protocol
D. hardware, network, and vulnerability
Answer: A

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NO.4 An employee has become disgruntled with their employer, a payroll software manufacturer,
and one of
the employee's friends works for a competitor.
The employee copies some highly-confidential source code to a USB drive and gives the USB drive to
their friend after work.
Which source(s) of a breach are involved in this scenario?
A. malicious insider only
B. organized criminal only
C. malicious insider and organized criminal
D. well-meaning insider and malicious insider
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which global trade is determined by the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to
be
smaller than the global market for illegally-obtained information, according to the Security Solutions
2.0
course.?
A. illegal drug trade
B. arms trafficking trade
C. human trafficking trade
D. money laundering trade
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why would a cybercriminal avoid using a trojan in a widespread attack?
A. trojans are easily caught by antivirus products
B. end-users are aware of clicking on non-trusted executables
C. trojans only infect one system at a time
D. execution of trojans are dependent on the operating system
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which group is the number one source of IT security attacks according to the Symantec
research
shared in the Security Solutions 2.0 course?
A. malicious outsiders
B. organized criminals
C. well-meaning insiders
D. malicious insiders
Answer: B

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NO.8 The security team of a major government agency discovers a breach involving employee data
that has
been leaked outside the agency. They discover that a software developer for the agency transferred
employee data from a secure primary system to a secondary system, for the purpose of software
development and testing. This secondary system was the target of a hacker.
Which type of breach source(s) is this?
A. cybercriminal only
B. malicious insider and cybercriminal
C. cybercriminal and well-meaning insider
D. well-meaning insider only
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-237
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-06

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NO.1 You have a nonredundant concatenated volume named datavol in a disk group named datadg.
The volume has a file system on it. One of the underlying disks of the volume called datadg02 fails
temporarily due to a power failure. You fix the problem of the power failure, and ensure that the
disk is powered back again. You ensure that both the system and VxVM can see the disk again. Then,
you reattach the disk back to the disk media record.
Which command will you execute next to be able to run fsck on the file system?
A. vxvol -g datadg start datavol
B. vxrecover -s datavol
C. vxrecover -ns
D. vxvol -g datadg -f start datavol
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have a system that has two disks-disk01 and disk02, which are mapped into the system
configuration during boot as disks c0t0d0s2 and c0t1d0s2, respectively. A failure has caused disk01
to become detached.What would you do to view the status of the failed disk01?
A. Use the vxdg list command
B. Use the vxdg -s list command
C. Use the vxprint command
D. Use the vxdisk list command
Answer: D

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NO.3 An information security officer has detected an unauthorized tool on desktops being used to
transmit data with encrypted communications.
Which Symantec Data Loss Prevention feature should the information security officer use to prevent
this tool from accessing confidential data?
A. removable storage monitoring
B. network protocol monitoring
C. application path filtering
D. application monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.4 A DLP administrator needs to forward data loss incidents to the company's Security
Information and Event Management (SIEM) system.Which response rule action provides the
administrator with the ability to accomplish this task?
A. All: Send Email Notification
B. All: Log to a Syslog Server
C. All: Add Note
D. All: Set Attribute
Answer: B

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NO.5 In System Overview, the status of a detection server is shown as 'unknown'. Examination of
the detection server reveals all Vontu services are running.
Which port is blocked and causing the server to be in the 'unknown' state?
A. 443
B. 8000
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which rule will you use to discover disabled controllers failures in the Storage Foundation
5.0 environment?
A. vxse_host
B. vxse_disk
C. vxse_disklog
D. vxse_dc_failures
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the minimum percentage of spare disks in a disk group?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are managing a Storage Foundation 5.0 server that has Storage Foundation Management
Server (SFMS) software installed. You force a placement policy to a file system using the Storage
Foundation Management Server (SFMS).
What is the outcome when a policy is forced to a file system?
A. The current policies of the file system are overwritten by the SFMS policies.
B. The file system will retain its policies and discard the SFMS policies.
C. The file system will incorporate the changes of both the policies.
D. The file system will apply the SFMS policies only in the case where its own policies cannot be
assigned.
Answer: A

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NO.9 When you attempt to start the RAID-5 volume, you are prompted with an error message
"VxVM ERROR V-5-1-1237 Volume r5vol is not startable; some subdisks are unusable and the parity
is stale." You want to remove this error and start the RAID-5 volume.
How will you ensure that you do not encounter this error again?
A. Use a single RAID-5 log plex in RAID-5 volumes.
B. Change the subdisks.
C. Use two or more RAID-5 log plexes in RAID-5 volumes.
D. Reattach the subdisks.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which valid automated response option should an administrator choose for Email Prevent?
A. modify the message subject or add specific RFC-2822 headers
B. add metadata to email headers of confidential email
C. modify the body of email messages containing confidential data
D. process confidential email re-routed to a specified email list
Answer: A

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NO.11 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a
high demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will
increase the I/O performance.Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across
multiple disks?
A. Write throughput degradation
B. Single disk failure causes volume failure
C. Requirement for disk redundancy
D. Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.12 A system administrator has a large amount of data that is not being accessed on the
company's storage devices. This excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. You
want to set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires as per its defined age.
What should you do?
A. Use the Data Movement Service (DMS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
B. Use the Quality of Storage Service (QoSS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
C. Use the Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS) to set the threshold automatic relocation of data.
D. Use the Intelligent Volume Service (IVS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two locations can the administrator verify a newly created policy was loaded on a
detection server? (Select two.)
A. System > Servers > Overview
B. System > Servers > Server Detail
C. Manage > Policies > Policy List
D. System > Servers > Overview > Configure Server
E. System > Servers > Events
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 An incorrectable I/O error has occurred on a RAID volume due to a disk failure that caused
the data on the disk to become unavailable. For the RAID volume, the subdisk becomes unavailable
and is considered stale and detached.What is the RAID level in the volume in this situation?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which is a limitation of using CDS disk layout under VxVM 4.0 or above?
A. The CDS format cannot contain a private region and a public region on a single partition.
B. The CDS format cannot be used with hardware RAID controllers.
C. The CDS format cannot be used in conjunction with OS-level partitioning.
D. The CDS format cannot be used for boot disks.
Answer: D

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NO.16 An incident responder is viewing a discover incident snapshot and needs to determine which
information to provide to the next level responder.Which information would be most useful in
assisting the next level responder with data clean-up?
A. Incident Details: Message Body content
B. Custom Attributes: Most Active User from Data Insight
C. Incident Details: File Owner metadata
D. Access Information: File Permissions
Answer: B

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NO.17 You need to create a new volume. The new volume will only use disks on controller 1. You
want to execute the vxassist command with the ctlr:c1 storage attribute. You want to ensure that
the command provides desired output.
What should you ensure to meet the required goal?
A. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the disk group.
B. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the plex.
C. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the disk.
D. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the volume.
Answer: A

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NO.18 After installing Veritas Enterprise Administrator, you start the VEA with the profile name that
you have specified.When you click the Console View, what does it display? (Select two.)
A. Active Events
B. Volume Summary
C. Alerts
D. Disk History
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: ST0-148
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment )
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Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-21

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NO.1 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.7 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.11 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.13 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.14 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.15 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-151
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11 Technical Assessment )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 166 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-21

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NO.1 How is the Assess Data Controls business objective met by the Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 11.0?
A. Data Loss Prevention determines data loss from hardware.
B. Data Loss Prevention scans the network for loss of data.
C. Data Loss Prevention analyzes data contamination.
D. Data Loss Prevention is an external data application.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In which two ways are the Assess Procedural Controls business objectives met by Symantec
Control Compliance Suite 11.0? (Select two.)
A. The Response Assessment Module provides a set of standards to check against user policies.
B. The Response Assessment Module contains procedural controls to integrate content and
directive.
C. The Response Assessment Module integrates with the policy module.
D. The Response Assessment Module is an external data application.
E. The Response Assessment Module is an entitlement assessment application.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which type of credentials must be configured if the asset in a data collection is part of a
Windows Domain?
A. Windows Domain credentials
B. Windows Domain Cache credentials
C. Windows Common credentials
D. Windows Collector credentials
Answer: B

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NO.4 Computers hosting certain Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 components should be
colocated on the same LAN segment.
Which group of CCS components must be topologically deployed together?
A. Application Server, Production Database, and CCS Manager Collector
B. Application Server, CCS Manager Load Balancer, and CCS Manager Collector
C. CCS Manager Collector, CCS Manager Reporter, and CCS Manager Evaluator
D. CCS Manager Load Balancer, CCS Manager Reporter, and CCS Manager Evaluator
Answer: D

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NO.5 Data Collection jobs can be created from which area?
A. Manage > Queries
B. Manage > Agents
C. Manage > Standards
D. Manage > Control Points
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature allows users to view high-level
information graphically using a web browser?
A. Compliance Reports
B. Remediation Reports
C. Tiered Dashboards
D. Dynamic Dashboards
Answer: D

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NO.7 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two functions of the Control Compliance Suite 11.0 (CCS) Directory? (Select two.)
A. It stores the asset data and user rights.
B. It manages the system scheduling and workflow.
C. It hosts the certificate authority for the CCS system.
D. It manages web-based dashboards.
E. It executes all standards-based jobs.
Answer: D,E

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NO.9 What must be installed on a computer in order to export evaluation results using the context
menu?
A. Crystal Reports
B. Microsoft Excel
C. Adobe Reader
D. ODBC
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a contrasting point between the Assess Procedural Controls and Assess Technical
Controls business objectives?
A. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective allows provision of capacity to assess security
compliance of assets against a set ofstandards, whereas the Assess Technical Controls business
objective uses the CCS Vulnerability Manager to determine external threats.
B. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective uses CCS Vulnerability Manager to determine
external threats, whereas the Assess Technical Controls business objective uses Response
Assessment
Module to control built-in content and mandates.
C. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective allows importing custom data into CCS Policy
Manager, whereas the Assess TechnicalControls business objective uses Response Assessment
Module
to control built-in content and mandates.
D. The Assess Procedural Controls business objective uses the Response Assessment Module to
control
built-in content and mandates, whereasthe Assess Technical Controls business objective allows
provision
of capacity to assess security compliance of assets against a set ofstandards.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 roles are valid for exception
management?
(Select two.)
A. Exception Administrator
B. Exception Approver
C. Exception Auditor
D. Exception Owner
E. Exception Requestor
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment models designed to collect and evaluate
data from 2,000 assets should have two SQL Server systems: one to host the reporting database and
the other to host the production database.
What is the minimum recommended memory configuration for each SQL system?
A. 8 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 32 GB
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the recommended initial size and auto growth rate for TempDB on the Reporting
Database Server in a very large scale Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment?
A. 5 GB - 10%
B. 5 GB - 20%
C. 20 GB - 10%
D. 20 GB - 20%
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which platform is unsupported in message-based data collection?
A. Oracle
B. Exchange
C. NDS
D. Sybase
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which feature allows temporary permissions that exempt an asset from following an
organizational
policy for a specific time period?
A. Exceptions
B. Exemptions
C. Allowances
D. Exclusions
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer needs to map internal requirements documents to mandates and controls. The
customer also needs to track who has read these documents.
Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 module should the customer use?
A. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Assessment Manager
B. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Risk Manager
C. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Vulnerability Manager
D. Symantec Control Compliance Suite Policy Manager
Answer: D

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NO.17 An organization has 5,000 assets that must be scanned weekly for the next calendar year using
standards containing 350 checks.
What is the approximate amount of Reporting Database disk space required for each standard?
A. 100 GB
B. 300 GB
C. 500 GB
D. 700 GB
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 components must be installed to help
achieve the business objective: Plan for internal and external audits.? (Select two.)
A. CCS Application Server
B. Data Loss Prevention Connector
C. CCS Agent
D. Response Assessment Module
E. CCS Manager
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 A partner responsible for installing a Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 deployment
adds a domain user to the CCS Administrator role. The domain user needs to create new certificates
for multiple,
new CCS Manager systems; however when the user attempts to create a certificate, it fails.
What is a likely reason for the failure?
A. The certificate password has expired.
B. The user is also a member of the CCS User role.
C. The user account password should be the certificate password.
D. The user must be an administrator on the Application Server system.
Answer: D

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NO.20 During a fresh deployment of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0, the installer displays
a critical error at the completion of the product installation.
What is the recommended resolution for the failure?
A. use the repair option in add/remove programs
B. uninstall and re-install the product after rectifying the problem
C. get the latest operating system updates and rerun setup.exe
D. ensure the selected service account is a local system administrator
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-237
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-21

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NO.1 You have a nonredundant concatenated volume named datavol in a disk group named datadg.
The volume has a file system on it. One of the underlying disks of the volume called datadg02 fails
temporarily due to a power failure. You fix the problem of the power failure, and ensure that the
disk is powered back again. You ensure that both the system and VxVM can see the disk again. Then,
you reattach the disk back to the disk media record.
Which command will you execute next to be able to run fsck on the file system?
A. vxvol -g datadg start datavol
B. vxrecover -s datavol
C. vxrecover -ns
D. vxvol -g datadg -f start datavol
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which valid automated response option should an administrator choose for Email Prevent?
A. modify the message subject or add specific RFC-2822 headers
B. add metadata to email headers of confidential email
C. modify the body of email messages containing confidential data
D. process confidential email re-routed to a specified email list
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have a system that has two disks-disk01 and disk02, which are mapped into the system
configuration during boot as disks c0t0d0s2 and c0t1d0s2, respectively. A failure has caused disk01
to become detached.What would you do to view the status of the failed disk01?
A. Use the vxdg list command
B. Use the vxdg -s list command
C. Use the vxprint command
D. Use the vxdisk list command
Answer: D

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NO.4 An incorrectable I/O error has occurred on a RAID volume due to a disk failure that caused
the data on the disk to become unavailable. For the RAID volume, the subdisk becomes unavailable
and is considered stale and detached.What is the RAID level in the volume in this situation?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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NO.5 You need to create a volume for the HR department. You need to mount a file system with a
high demand for I/O throughput. You are aware that spanning the volume across multiple disks will
increase the I/O performance.Which risk should you be aware of when spanning the volume across
multiple disks?
A. Write throughput degradation
B. Single disk failure causes volume failure
C. Requirement for disk redundancy
D. Poor I/O performance
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is a limitation of using CDS disk layout under VxVM 4.0 or above?
A. The CDS format cannot contain a private region and a public region on a single partition.
B. The CDS format cannot be used with hardware RAID controllers.
C. The CDS format cannot be used in conjunction with OS-level partitioning.
D. The CDS format cannot be used for boot disks.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When you attempt to start the RAID-5 volume, you are prompted with an error message
"VxVM ERROR V-5-1-1237 Volume r5vol is not startable; some subdisks are unusable and the parity
is stale." You want to remove this error and start the RAID-5 volume.
How will you ensure that you do not encounter this error again?
A. Use a single RAID-5 log plex in RAID-5 volumes.
B. Change the subdisks.
C. Use two or more RAID-5 log plexes in RAID-5 volumes.
D. Reattach the subdisks.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two locations can the administrator verify a newly created policy was loaded on a
detection server? (Select two.)
A. System > Servers > Overview
B. System > Servers > Server Detail
C. Manage > Policies > Policy List
D. System > Servers > Overview > Configure Server
E. System > Servers > Events
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 What is the minimum percentage of spare disks in a disk group?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Answer: A

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NO.10 An incident responder is viewing a discover incident snapshot and needs to determine which
information to provide to the next level responder.Which information would be most useful in
assisting the next level responder with data clean-up?
A. Incident Details: Message Body content
B. Custom Attributes: Most Active User from Data Insight
C. Incident Details: File Owner metadata
D. Access Information: File Permissions
Answer: B

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NO.11 An information security officer has detected an unauthorized tool on desktops being used to
transmit data with encrypted communications.
Which Symantec Data Loss Prevention feature should the information security officer use to prevent
this tool from accessing confidential data?
A. removable storage monitoring
B. network protocol monitoring
C. application path filtering
D. application monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which rule will you use to discover disabled controllers failures in the Storage Foundation
5.0 environment?
A. vxse_host
B. vxse_disk
C. vxse_disklog
D. vxse_dc_failures
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are managing a Storage Foundation 5.0 server that has Storage Foundation Management
Server (SFMS) software installed. You force a placement policy to a file system using the Storage
Foundation Management Server (SFMS).
What is the outcome when a policy is forced to a file system?
A. The current policies of the file system are overwritten by the SFMS policies.
B. The file system will retain its policies and discard the SFMS policies.
C. The file system will incorporate the changes of both the policies.
D. The file system will apply the SFMS policies only in the case where its own policies cannot be
assigned.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A DLP administrator needs to forward data loss incidents to the company's Security
Information and Event Management (SIEM) system.Which response rule action provides the
administrator with the ability to accomplish this task?
A. All: Send Email Notification
B. All: Log to a Syslog Server
C. All: Add Note
D. All: Set Attribute
Answer: B

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NO.15 A system administrator has a large amount of data that is not being accessed on the
company's storage devices. This excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. You
want to set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires as per its defined age.
What should you do?
A. Use the Data Movement Service (DMS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
B. Use the Quality of Storage Service (QoSS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
C. Use the Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS) to set the threshold automatic relocation of data.
D. Use the Intelligent Volume Service (IVS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
Answer: B

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NO.16 In System Overview, the status of a detection server is shown as 'unknown'. Examination of
the detection server reveals all Vontu services are running.
Which port is blocked and causing the server to be in the 'unknown' state?
A. 443
B. 8000
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: C

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NO.17 You need to create a new volume. The new volume will only use disks on controller 1. You
want to execute the vxassist command with the ctlr:c1 storage attribute. You want to ensure that
the command provides desired output.
What should you ensure to meet the required goal?
A. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the disk group.
B. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the plex.
C. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the disk.
D. Ensure that storage attribute is a part of the volume.
Answer: A

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NO.18 After installing Veritas Enterprise Administrator, you start the VEA with the profile name that
you have specified.When you click the Console View, what does it display? (Select two.)
A. Active Events
B. Volume Summary
C. Alerts
D. Disk History
Answer: A,C

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